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Code d'Examen: HP0-771
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 The administrator is unable to verify who has an open session with Command View ESL. The
administrator needs to access the library to update the firmware. Which two actions should the
administrator take in order to upgrade the firmware? (Choose two).
A.Power cycle the library.
B.Run the CLI via a serial cable.
C.Run the CLI via telnet.
D.Power cycle the backup server.
Correct:B C

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NO.2 A customer is using a MSL6060 library with four tape drives. The library is directly attached to a
server via SCSI HBAs. The library currently has no cards in the cPCI slots. The customer wishes
to share the tape library in a SAN environment. Which two hardware changes to the library will be
needed, assuming that all other components in the SAN already exist? (Choose two.)
A.The customer should connect a Fibre cable from the existing Library Controller board into a Fibre
Channel switch.
B.The customer should remove the existing Library Controller board and replace it with a Fibre Channel
Library Controller board.
C.The customer should add a Network Storage Router M2402 to the SAN and connect the tape drives to
the router.
D.The customer should add two e1200-160 Interface Controllers to the cPCI slots and connect the tape
drives to the Interface Controllers.
E.The customer should add one e2400-160 Interface Controller into a cPCI slot and connect the tape
drives to the Interface Controller.
Correct:C D

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NO.3 What two levels of library access does the advanced mode of Secure Manager allow? (Choose
two.)
A.drive
B.zone
C.library
D.backup
Correct:A C

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NO.4 A customer finds that backup jobs are unsuccessful. The backup software is able to detect the
library and its tape drives. The customer stops all backup jobs and decides to update the firmware
for the MSL6060 library using Library and Tape Tools but, Library and Tape Tools is unable to start
the firmware upgrade. Which should be performed?
A.Download the latest patches for the backup software.
B.Install Library and Tape Tools on a workstation instead.
C.Verify that the Fibre Channel Interface Controller detects the library.
D.Stop the backup application services or daemons on the backup server.
Correct:D

HP   HP0-771 examen   HP0-771   HP0-771 examen

NO.5 Which of the following steps should the administrator perform after installing Command View
ESL? (Choose two).
A.Configure host access to the library.
B.Configure SCSI IDs for each tape drive.
C.Configure encryption settings for the library.
D.Configure identification properties for each library.
E.Configure compression settings for each tape drive.
Correct:A D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A02
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 152 Q&As

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NO.1 The execution scripts for rwhod and xntpd are configured in which configuration file?
A. /etc/rc.config.d/netconf
B. /etc/rc.config.d/mailsvrs
C. /etc/rc.config.d/namesvrs
D. /etc/rc.config.d/netdaemons
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which variable holds the number of arguments passed into a function inside of a KSH script?
A. $!
B. $?
C. $#
D. $$
E. $0
Answer: C

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NO.3 When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in
the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. Which HP-UX application can be used in addition
to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf?
A. IPsec
B. IPfilter
C. TCP wrappers
D. Security Advisor
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button. The Exhibit shows one possible output of a processor information command.
Which command can be executed to get processor information from an Integrity system running HP-UX?
A. procinfo
B. cpu_info
C. machinfo
D. cpuinfo -v
E. procinfo -v
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.)
A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning
B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces
C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth
D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth
E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which commands create a file with paths to all files named bob and display the files on the screen as
they are identified? (Select two.)
A. find / -name bob | tee list
B. find / -name bob | tail -f >list
C. find / -name bob | tail list >list
D. find / -name bob &>list tail -f list
E. find / -name bob >list & tail -f list
Answer: AE

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NO.7 Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network?
A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync
B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate
C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan
D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which command prints out the network routing table?
A. netstat
B. nwmgr
C. ifconfig
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot?
A. /sbin/init.d/net
B. /sbin/init.d/named
C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core
D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which features are supported by the Red Hat Directory Server? (Select three.)
A. ADSI API
B. NTLM authentication
C. multi-master replication
D. replication with Novell eDirectory
E. X.509 certificate based authentication
F. secure communications using SSL/TLS
Answer: CEF

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NO.11 Which command performs formatting of binary data generated by nettl?
A. nroff -e
B. netformat -a
C. nettl -l filename
D. netfmt -f filename
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the result of the following command? find / -atime +14 -size +1000c -exec rm -i {} \;
A. Search for all files more than 14 hours old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
B. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 10 characters. Prompt the user to
delete each file found that matches the search criteria.
C. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
D. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 characters. Prompt the user to
rename each file found that matches the search criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button. What is the output after executing this script?
A. Last
B. First
C. Third
D. Second
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that
do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)?
A. SASL
B. attribute mapping
C. configuration profile
D. service search descriptors
Answer: B

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NO.15 On an HP-UX system, an empty cron.deny file exists but there is not a cron.allow file. Who can use
cron in this situation?
A. nobody
B. only root
C. everybody
D. only system accounts
Answer: C

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NO.16 Neighbor discovery is a component of which protocol?
A. IPv6
B. ARP
C. OSPF
D. DHCP
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server?
A. nisinit -a
B. update all ASCII source files
C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start
D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product?
A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf
B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf
C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf
D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which command talks directly to the sendmail daemon and other SMTP servers to verify connectivity?
A. telnet host 23
B. telnet host 80
C. telnet host 25
D. telnet host 110
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it?
A. NFS v4
B. Unified File Cache
C. Memory-Mapped Access
D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM)
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-085
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 In an sx2000 HP Superdome Server, what is the minimum number of DIMMs you need to install
to provide high availability in the memory subsystem?
A.two per cell
B.four per cell
C.eight per cell
D.sixteen per cell
Correct:C

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.2 The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
E.six
Correct:A C

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.3 How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station
(SMS)?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
Correct:B

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.4 How does Pellston technology contribute to reliability and high availability of Montecito
processors?
A.It increases the bandwidth of the processor bus.
B.It removes hard cache errors by disabling the affected Level 3 (L3) cache line.
C.It measures processor power consumption and deactivates processors with irregular usage.
D.It measures processor power consumption and increases processor frequency for processors that
serve particular applications.
Correct:B

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.5 Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A.Online JFS
B.Mirrordisk/UX
C.Data Protector
D.Workload Manager (WLM)
E.Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Correct:A B

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.6 What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP)
provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.event logs
B.console logs
C.server power usage
D.processor utilization percentages
E.service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Correct:A B

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.7 Which component of Superdome 32-way server is omitted from the Superdome16-way server's
backplane assembly?
A.crossbar links
B.local crossbar communication links
C.cell board connectors for cells 4 through 7
D.cell board connectors for cells 0 through 3
Correct:C

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.8 Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A.Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B.Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C.An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D.Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E.Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in separate
hard partitions (nPars).
Correct:C D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.9 Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A.Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B.After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C.For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D.Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize bandwidth.
Correct:A

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.10 How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best
performance?
A.Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B.Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C.Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D.Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Correct:C

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.11 Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to
set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A.increase performance
B.efficient resource utilization
C.activate spare processor capacity
D.run multiple workloads on one system
E.maximum system uptime and availability
Correct:B D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.12 Which HP Superdome servers support the PCI-X I/O chassis? (Select two.)
A.PA-8700
B.PA-8800
C.PA-9000
D.Itanium 2
E.PA-8600
Correct:B D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.13 How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is
interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A.nPar commands
B.HP OpenView Operations
C.HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E.These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell boards.
Correct:A C

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.14 What are the single points of failure in an sx1000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.I/O chassis
B.sx2000 chipset
C.crossbar backplane
D.power monitor module
E.Management Processor (MP)
Correct:C D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.15 Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select
two.)
A.Tape drive
B.Core I/O card
C.Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D.Card connected to boot media
E.Card connected to removable media
Correct:D E

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.16 How does Global Shared Memory increase the performance of an sx2000 Superdome server?
A.provides a redundant global clock source
B.provides console functionality for each cell in a Superdome server
C.provides direct remote access to the cell through the Management Processor (MP)
D.shifts networking between partitions to the backplane instead of through I/O subsystems
Correct:D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.17 Which configuration rule is true for an HP Integrity Superdome cell board memory?
A.DIMMS must all be the same size.
B.Memory must be added all at one time.
C.Individual DIMMS must be loaded in pairs.
D.Mixing DIMM size is allowed with some restrictions.
Correct:D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.18 Which memory configuration does HP recommend for an sx1000 Superdome customer who
wants the most availability?
A.16 DIMMS (eight ranks)
B.32 DIMMS (sixteen ranks)
C.minimum of 4 DIMMS (two ranks)
D.minimum of 8 DIMMS (four ranks)
Correct:C

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.19 Which devices does HP recommend for each hard partition? (Select two.)
A.DAT
B.DLT
C.LTO
D.DVD
E.CD-ROM
Correct:A D

HP   HP0-085   HP0-085   HP0-085

NO.20 Which functions does the Support Management Station (SMS) support? (Select two.)
A.activates Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B.displays a log of events for troubleshooting
C.is a console to monitor Superdome servers
D.sets service level objectives (SLOs) for partitions
E.monitors resource usage and allocate resources for partitions
Correct:B C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S18
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which memory protection technology can detect 2-bit errors in a single byte
and correct single-bit errors?
A. Automatic Parity Checking
B. Battery Backed Write Cache
C. Error Checking and Correcting
D. Error Detecting and Correction
Answer: C

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NO.2 What features are included in both HP Support Plus and HP Support Plus 24?
(Select two.)
A. extended business hours coverage
B. annual OS patch analysis
C. escalation management
D. Fix Time/Call-to-Repair
E. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: A, C

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NO.3 Which technology enables Fibre Channel to communicate between SAN
facilities over IP networks?
A. point-to-point Fibre Channel
B. extended Fibre Channel
C. storage tunneling
D. long distance macro bending
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the advantage of the iSCSI technology?
A. has no distance limitation
B. uses same data transmission protocol as Fibre Channel
C. provides support for ESCON protocol
D. is better than Fibre Channel technology for large database transfers and very large input/output
operations
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the benefit of SAS connectors?
A. SAS drives can be daisy-chained during configuration.
B. SAS connectors enable additional diagnostic features.
C. SAS uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as SATA.
D. SAS host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A24
Nom d'Examen: HP (NonStop Data Communication Basics)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 Which product allows a single IP address to be hosted in all processors in a NonStop server?
A.Telserv
B.Scalable IP (SIP)
C.NonStop TCP/IP
D.NonStop TCP/IPv6
Answer:D

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NO.2 An OLTP system processes 100 transactions per second with an average transaction size of 1000 bytes.
To replicate all transactions to a disaster recovery system, what is the minimum bandwidth required
between the systems?
A.1Gbps
B.9.6Kbps
C.64Kbps
D.4Mbps
Answer:D

HP   HP0-A24   HP0-A24

NO.3 Which SCF command is used to view Expand network throughput?
A.stats line $LHC565
B.stats path $LHC565
C.trace path $LHC565
D.status path $LHC565
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which command allows you to view network-related events in the primary EMS log?
A.emscinfo $0, detail
B.emsdist type P, textout [#myterm]
C.emsdist type P, collector $0, textout [#myterm]
D.emsdist type P, collector $ZLOG, textout [#myterm]
Answer:C

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NO.5 How can you improve availability when configuring NonStop TCP/IPv6 with multiple failover pairs and
static routes?
A.Connect to a firewall that uses MAC to IP address filtering.
B.Select LIF pairs for the failover to be on the same adapters.
C.Add a copy of each route to one subnet in each failover pair.
D.Use Ethernet switches that have spanning tree protocol enabled.
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which LAN-based technology provides flexible connectivity of desktop and portable devices in an
office environment?
A.CAT3 cabling
B.wireless LAN
C.fiber optic LAN
D.10BaseT cabling
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which event is most likely to interrupt availability in a satellite connected network?
A.heavy rain
B.decreased ozone levels
C.direct sunlight on the uplink
D.increased environmental noise
Answer:A

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NO.8 What is the most efficient technology to use to create an Expand path between two NS-series servers
located in the same computer room?
A.X.25
B.SNA
C.Ethernet
D.ServerNet Cluster
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which SCF command is used to show process names related to a TCP/IP process?
A.show process $ZTC0
B.status process $ZTC0
C.listopens process $ZTC0
D.info process $ZTC0, detail
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which SCF command is used to display all configured TCP/IP addresses?
A.info subnet $*.*
B.listdev tcpip $*.*
C.status subnet $*.*
D.listopens process $*.*
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S17
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Which interconnect module offered by HP has the capability of assigning a configuration profile to a
specific server blade?
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Cisco 3020 Switch
C.Virtual Connect Ethernet
D.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: C

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NO.2 You are administrating several c-Class enclosures and are looking for a unified authentication system
for all iLO cards and Onboard Administrator modules.
What is the proper solution?
A.HP Protect Tools
B.Credential Manager
C.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D.Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
ANSWER: D

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NO.3 Which features does Virtual Connect Ethernet module (VC-Enet) provide in a network environment?
(Select two.)
A.VC-Enet can stack across four enclosures in a rack.
B.VC-Enet appears as an HP ProCurve device to other network devices.
C.VC-Enet will not add any new switches for the network administrator to manage.
D.VC-Enet domains can be created directly using the Onboard Administrator console.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.4 What is an advantage of a c7000 Enclosure compared to a c3000 Enclosure in an enterprise
environment?
A.N+N redundancy in the power subsystem
B.Virtual Connect and storage blade support
C.interconnect redundancy for integrated NICs
D.application of Onboard Administrator advanced license
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 A customer that usually works with a c3000 Enclosure needs to use the external DVD drive on a
c7000 Enclosure and connect the drive to all servers in the c7000 Enclosure.
How can the external DVD drive on the c7000 Enclosure be accessed?
A.Use the DVD drive integrated in the c7000 Enclosure.
B.Use the DVD drive connected to the downlink port of the c7000 Enclosure.
C.Use the DVD drive connected to the USB port on an Onboard Administrator module.
D.Use the DVD drive attached through the serial/USB/video cable attached to any server blade.
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-S17   HP0-S17

NO.6 Which interconnect option creates domains and stacks LAN modules across c7000 Enclosures?
A.GbE2c Ethernet
B.Virtual Connect Ethernet
C.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
D.Virtual Connect Fibre Channel
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 Which management suite delivers core management functionality for the HP BladeSystem solution,
including server deployment, health monitoring, performance monitoring, vulnerability scanning and patch
management?
A.HP Storage Essentials
B.HP Operations Software
C.Insight Control Environment
D.HP Systems Insight Manager
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which ProLiant Essentials Value Pack is an integrated power monitoring and management
application that provides centralized monitoring and control of datacenter power consumption and thermal
output?
A.Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
ANSWER: A

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NO.9 Which devices can be assigned an IP address through Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA) for
c-Class server blades? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 cards
B.interconnects
C.Insight Display
D.LAN interfaces of mezzanine cards
E.iSCSI target IP address on server blades
ANSWER: AB

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the HP StorageWorks SB40c Storage Blade?
A.provides a blade form factor tape solution for any server supporting the TCP/IP protocol
B.provides a blade form factor networked shared storage for any server supporting IP-based storage
(iSCSI)
C.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade within the same c7000
Enclosure
D.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade in another linked c7000
Enclosure
ANSWER: C

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NO.11 Which industry standard technologies are compatible with the SB600c AiO Storage Blade? (Select
two.)
A.ATA
B.SAS
C.SCSI
D.iSCSI
E.SATA
ANSWER: BD

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NO.12 A customer is looking for a virtualization solution for their data center. Their main area of concern is
server down time.
You have identified the x86-based virtualization candidates. Which platform best suits the customer's
needs?
A.scale-up
B.scale-out
C.Integrity VSE
D.single server virtual consolidation
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 A BladeSystem enclosure is managed by one Onboard Administrator that failed. Which functionality is
still available? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 is accessible.
B.All fans are up and running.
C.Server blades can access the SAN.
D.New server blades can be added and powered up.
E.New interconnect devices can be added and powered up.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.14 Your customer has a c7000 Enclosure and two power supplies installed in bays 1 and 2. They are
switching from single-phase power to a three-phase power subsystem with full redundancy.
Which action is necessary to make this configuration work and be supported?
A.Install 4 additional power supplies.
B.Move the power supplies to bays 1 and 4.
C.Turn off the Dynamic Power Saver feature.
D.Enable three-phase power using the Onboard Administrator.
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 Which industry standard protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A.XML
B.TFTP
C.iSCSI
D.WBEM
E.NetBEUI
ANSWER: AD

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NO.16 Which industry standard memory technology can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades
to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A.Advanced ECC
B.mirrored memory
C.registered DIMMs
D.online spare memory
E.interleaved memory support
ANSWER: BD

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NO.17 An administrator needs to monitor performance of every drive connected to the Smart Array controller.
Each drive is configured as a single logical drive.
Which tool can be used?
A.Insight Diagnostic
B.Radia Performance Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Windows Server Performance Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.18 A customer has a Virtual Connect managed enclosure and needs to move one of the blades to a
non-virtual connect enclosure.
What should be done so that duplicate MAC addresses and WWNs do not appear in the datacenter due
to server blade deployment?
A.Enable the Reset to factory default switch on the blade system board.
B.Run the erase utility on the blade before plugging the server to the network.
C.First delete all MAC and WWNs configurations while the server is in the VC managed enclosure and
then move the server to the non-VC managed enclosure.
D.MAC addresses and WWNs are automatically returned to factory defaults when the server is moved to
the non-Virtual connect enclosure so no duplicate MAC addresses or WWNs appear.
ANSWER: D

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NO.19 Which industry standard processor options are supported in the HP BL460c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.Dual-Core Intel Xeon
B.Quad-Core Intel Xeon
C.Dual-Core Intel Itanium2
D.Dual-Core AMD Opteron
E.Quad-Core AMD Opteron
ANSWER: AB

HP   HP0-S17   HP0-S17

NO.20 You are replacing one of your redundant GbE2c interconnect switch modules in your c7000 Enclosure.
What must you be aware of when you install a replacement GbE2C switch with default settings into the
enclosure?
A.Crosslink ports are disabled and redundancy is lost between switches.
B.Crosslink ports are enabled and will cause a loop in your switch topology.
C.Uplink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
D.Downlink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.21 An administrator configures an HP c7000 Enclosure using Onboard Administrator. Which option can
be used to automatically configure IP addresses for all iLO cards and interconnect modules?
A.Insight Display
B.Virtual Connect Manager
C.Interconnect LAN Manager
D.Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA)
ANSWER: D

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NO.22 Your customer wants to replace an existing c3000 Enclosure with a c7000 Enclosure. Which
components from the c3000 Enclosure can be reused in the c7000 Enclosure? (Select three.)
A.fans
B.power supplies
C.interconnect modules
D.server and storage blades
E.Onboard Administrator module
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.23 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.service planning interview
B.network device configuration
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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NO.24 Which industry standard memory technologies are supported in a BL465c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.memory sparing
B.memory mirroring
C.memory interleaving
D.ECC and Advanced ECC
E.833MHz maximum speed DIMMs
ANSWER: CD

HP   HP0-S17   certification HP0-S17

NO.25 The Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module uses which type of Port ID Virtualization protocol to
aggregate multiple Fibre Channel HBAs over a smaller number of physical uplinks?
A.E_Port
B.F_Port
C.L_Port
D.N_Port
ANSWER: D

HP   certification HP0-S17   HP0-S17   HP0-S17   HP0-S17

NO.26 A customer wants to deploy a c7000 Enclosure and six server blades in a datacenter with limited
power. How can they ensure the solution fits within the available datacenter power envelope?
A.The customer needs to make sure they have at least 6750 watts of available power in every case.
B.Use the HP BladeSystem Sizer to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they want
to deploy.
C.Use the HP Rack and Power tool to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they
want to deploy.
D.Use the Enterprise Configurator in ActiveAnswers to determine how much power is needed for the
configuration they want to deploy.
ANSWER: B

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NO.27 Which tool tests and evaluates the hardware and software configuration of systems where HP SIM is
installed or is being considered for installation?
A.Insight Control Advisor
B.HP SIM Capacity Planner
C.Active Answers Solution Sizer
D.Site Installation Preparation Utility
ANSWER: A

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NO.28 Your customer is looking for an Ethernet interconnect with Fibre uplinks for their c7000 Enclosure.
Which interconnects should be considered? (Select two.)
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Infiniband switch
C.Cisco Catalyst 3020
D.GbE2c Layer 2/3 Switch
E.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: CD

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NO.29 After replacing a failed drive in a server blade, your customer complains about long logical drive time
recovery. What can you do to reduce recovery time?
A.Migrate the logical drive to RAID 6.
B.Install MPIO software on the server blade.
C.Set the rebuild priority to high on the controller.
D.Enable the Tagged Command Queuing (TCQ) feature on the hard drive.
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-S17   HP0-S17 examen

NO.30 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.verification of operation
B.confirmation of software revisions
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P19
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX High Availability Using Serviceguard v18)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 What are advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. increases user scalability
B. increases database security
C. supports larger database size
D. increases hardware scalability
E. increases database availability
F. increases application scalability
G. decreases package failover time
Answer: DEF

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NO.2 You are asked by your management team to do a presentation and explain why your IT department
should go with the SGeRAC solution instead of the standard single-instance Oracle implementation with
Serviceguard.
Which benefits should you present? (Select two.)
A. reduces the overall cost
B. increases the security level
C. provides easier cluster management
D. reduces recovery time of a large database
E. provides the ability to add more nodes to the cluster on the fly
F. increases processing power without the need to administer separate databases
Answer: DF

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NO.3 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. mean time to restart a failed service
B. mean time to repair a server after a failure
C. mean time to restart a server after a failure
D. mean time a system provides service without failure
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which situations can a local high availability solution prevent unplanned downtime? (Select two.)
A. An operator accidentially reboots a cluster node.
B. The shared storage component looses A/C power and goes down.
C. A complete data center goes down because of an environmental disaster.
D. The network communication between the cluster nodes is permanently interrupted.
E. The clustered application database becomes corrupted by installation of an application patch.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Which products offer a solution to protect from failure of a complete data center? (Select three.)
A. Metrocluster
B. Serviceguard
C. Continentalclusters
D. Extended Campus Cluster
E. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Which statement is correct concerning the difference between a local Serviceguard cluster and an
extended distance cluster (also known as a campus cluster)?
A. An extended distance cluster provides disaster tolerance across two data centers located on different
continents.
B. An extended distance cluster solution typically requires a physical data replication mechanism between
high end storage arrays.
C. An extended distance cluster solution typically uses host based disk mirroring between two computer
rooms in an IT environment.
D. An extended distance cluster is a separate product installation to implement High Availability between
two computer rooms in a IT environment.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the advantages with respect to application availability for a customer using Serviceguard in
an HA environment? (Select two.)
A. Application database corruptions will be minimized.
B. An upgrade of the operating system will only require a package switch.
C. A power outage in the customer's computer room will not affect the users.
D. Rolling upgrades of the application can be performed in a Serviceguard environment.
E. A failure in a redundant power supply will only cause a package switch to the adoptive node.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 What does OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion) provide?
A. online replacement, addtion, and deletion of vPARs
B. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards
C. online replacement, addition, and deletion of cell boards in cell based systems
D. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards and core I/O cards
Answer: B

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NO.9 In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of
shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: ADG

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NO.10 Which failure scenarios are transparent to application users when the application is running as a
Serviceguard package? (Select two.)
A. A LAN interface fails on a node where no package is running.
B. A complete power outage in the computer room where the cluster is located.
C. A redundant power supply fails in the cluster node running the application package.
D. Manual application package switch because of planned downtime on the cluster node.
E. The cluster node running the application package crashes because of a memory multibit error.
Answer: AC

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NO.11 In the context of high availability, which statements are true regarding split-brain syndrome? (Select
two.)
A. It can occur on a 2-node cluster.
B. It can occur on a 3-node cluster.
C. It allows different applications to simulatneously access the same disk.
D. It allows different partitions to access the same disk without knowledge of each other.
E. It is caused when two clusters initiate an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously.
F. It is caused when two equal size sub-clusters form from a single cluster without knowledge of each
other.
Answer: AF

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NO.12 Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
B. HA systems provide a disaster tolerant solution that allows recovery from the loss of an entire data
center.
C. Unplanned downtime is be caused by a failure of a non-redundant hardware component on a cluster
node.
D. Metrocluster and Extended Campus Cluster solutions provide the same level of protection as a local
HA solution in case of environmental disasters.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software, and computing hardware enhancements that
maximize the time that the application and system are available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some kind of
backup system hardware, power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: AEF

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NO.13 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX system? (Select four.)
A. hard disk drive
B. operating system
C. system administrator
D. redundant power supply
E. CPU on a Uniprocessor system
F. multi-port network interface card
G. alternate link to a disk in a shared volume group
Answer: ABEF

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NO.14 An e-ticketing application based on Apache webserver for a busy tourist market experiences failures
during peak season, resulting in loss of revenues.
Which product combination implements a solution that improves availability of the e-ticketing application?
(Select two.)
A. HP Serviceguard
B. Continental Clusters
C. HP Serviceguard Extension for SAP
D. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
E. HP Serviceguard Extension for RAC
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Which statements are true regarding Serviceguard Manager version 5.01? (Select three.)
A. Serviceguard Manager is a graphical user interface for the Serviceguard product.
B. With Serviceguard Manager you can monitor, administer, and configure clusters managed by
Serviceguard.
C. With Serviceguard Manager you can run a multinode cluster which consists of both HP-UX and Linux
nodes.
D. With Serviceguard Manager you can change package-switching and node-switching flags for failover
packages.
E. With Serviceguard Manager you can install Serviceguard software product on hosts managed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM).
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 Which configurations are valid for a Serviceguard environment in combination with Integrity Virtual
machines? (Select two.)
A. Configuration 1
B. Configuration 2
C. Configuration 3
D. Configuration 4
Answer: AB

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NO.17 What is the purpose of the cluster interconnect in a Serviceguard extension for Oracle RAC
implementation? (Select two.)
A. Nodes can use it for cluster heartbeat traffic.
B. Nodes coordinate the shared storage status.
C. Oracle single instances coordinate their online/offline status.
D. Oracle RAC instances coordinate the consistency between their Oracle buffer cache.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, Workload Manager
(WLM) integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
B. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
C. WLM moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
D. cmcld moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your customer wants you to design an HA solution with HP-UX and Serviceguard that runs the
customer's Business Critical SAP production system as Serviceguard package, pkgA, and the customer's
Development SAP system as Serviceguard package, pkgB.
You design two vPars (vpar1 and vpar2) on serverA and two vPars (vpar3 and vpar4) on serverB.
What is a good design for this cluster to provide the maximum high availability? (Select two.)
A. Cluster vpar1 and vpar2 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
B. Cluster vpar1 and vpar3 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
C. Cluster vpar2 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
D. Cluster vpar3 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 What is the function of the lock disk or Quorum server in a Serviceguard cluster?
A. prevents split brain syndrome
B. determines which node becomes the cluster coordinator
C. ensures that quorum is present the entire time the cluster is up
D. keeps a record of volume groups that are locked in exclusive mode
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which situations does Serviceguard provide high availability solutions for? (Select two.)
A. LAN card failure
B. application failure
C. client subnet goes down
D. poor application performance
E. failure of one of the LUN paths to shared storage
Answer: AB

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NO.22 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX environment? (Select two.)
A. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard over two physical
nodes
B. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
C. cellboard on a partioned node with two nPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
D. cellboard on a single-nPar node with two vPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
Answer: BD

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NO.23 A customer has a 2-node HP Serviceguard cluster running a mission critical Oracle database and a
financial application. At the end of each month the server utilization spikes with no idle CPU resources
and there is a need for additional capacity.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment offering provides additional capacity and is best in this situation?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Global Workload Manager (gWLM)
E. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
Answer: E

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NO.24 When implementing a legacy package utilizing application monitoring, which variable in the package
control script will point to the monitor script?
A. service_cmd
B. SERVICE_CMD
C. MONITOR_CMD
D. MONITOR_NAME
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which components are considered potential single points of failure within a single HP-UX server?
(Select four.)
A. SAN
B. memory
C. backplane
D. DVD drive
E. LAN interfaces
F. mirrored root disks
G. system adminstrator
H. redundant power supply
I. Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter
Answer: BCEI

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NO.26 Consider the following entry in the /etc/rc.config.d/cmcluster file.
AUTOSTART_CMCLD=1
Which parameter in the cluster ascii file is affected by this entry?
A. CMCLD_TIMEOUT
B. CMCLD_RUN_START
C. AUTOSTART_CMCLD
D. AUTOSTART_TIMEOUT
E. HEARTBEAT_INTERVAL
Answer: D

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NO.27 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)?
A. mean interval of time to resume a service after a failure
B. mean time a service engineer needs to repair a failed server
C. mean interval of time when the system provides service without fault
D. mean time a service engineer needs to replace a server after a failure
E. mean time a service engineer needs to arrive at the site of a failed server
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which application templates are included in the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit (ECMT)? (Select
four.)
A. NFS
B. SAP
C. SAPDB
D. HP Tomcat
E. HP Apache
F. HP CIFS/9000
G. Oracle 9i and 10g
Answer: DEFG

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NO.29 What are the main features of OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion)? (Select two.)
A. ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
B. ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
C. ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
D. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
E. ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OL* while it is configured in a Serviceguard
cluster
F. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) LAN card and afterwards to online add a PCI(-X) FC HBA in the same
PCI(-X) slot on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
Answer: CD

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the cmviewcl output, which statement is correct?
A. A failure of ora_lsnr will cause alien_pkg to failover.
B. A single failure of oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 going down will cause alien_pkg to failover.
D. A failure of either ora_lsnr or oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.3 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.4 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.5 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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NO.10 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.12 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.14 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.15 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.18 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.19 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.21 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.22 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.24 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.27 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.30 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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