2014年1月31日星期五

Meilleur IBM 00M-245 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: 00M-245
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Automation Sales Mastery Test v4)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 000-176, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-176
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Worklight V5.0.0.3 Mobile Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the server-side configuration requirements to enable collection of analytics data for
reporting?
A. Configuration of parameters in the worklight.properties file to enable raw data collection and
database connectivity.
B. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-server.xml file to enable raw data collection and
database connectivity.
C. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-reports.properties file to enable raw data collection
and JNDI database connectivityparameters in the resources.xml file.
D. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-server.properties file to enable raw data collection
and JDBC database connectivityparameters in the resources.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company discovers a bug in one of the HTML pages of a Worklight hybrid mobile application
that it has recently published to the Android Google Play store. It has fixed the bug and re-deployed
the application to the production Worklight Server without changing its version number. Which
additional administrative step, if any, must be performed for the update to take effect the next time
a user accesses the application on a device?
A. No additional administrative steps are required.
B. Re-publish the application to the Android Google Play store.
C. Change the application status to Updated in the Worklight Console.
D. Change the application status to Updated in the Worklight Console and re-publish the application
to the Android Google Play store.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A developer has deployed a Worklight mobile application to a remote Worklight Server
environment using a context root of app1 and wants to update one of the application's server-side
components. Which Worklight console should the developer use to re-deploy the component?
A. The Worklight console on the remote server accessed through the URL:
http://remoteServerHostName:portNumber/console.
B. The Worklight console in the local development environment accessed through the URL:
http://localHostName:portNumber/console.
C. The application-specific Worklight console on the remote server accessed through the
URL:http://remoteServerHostName:portNumber/app1 /console.
D. The application-specific Worklight console in the local development environment accessed
through the URL:http://localHostName:portNumber/app1 /console.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The following changes are made to a Worklight mobile application: 1.Web resources of version
1 (v1) are updated and deployed to the Worklight Server. 2.A new version 2 (v2) is deployed with its
updateSilently property set to true. What will be the direct update user experience on a device
running v1 of the application when the user chooses to receive update?
A. v1 is uninstalled first followed by a silent installation of v2.
B. v1 web resources are updated first followed by a silent installation of v2.
C. v1 web resources are reloaded after the update and the application remains on v1.
D. The user is prompted to choose between updating v1 or installing v2 in the background.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A developer has prepared a Worklight mobile application for deployment to a production
Worklight Server environment and generated the .war, .wlapp and .adapter files for it. How should
the developer deploy the application files to the production Worklight Server environment?
A. Use the Worklight console to deploy the .war, .wlapp and .adapter files.
B. Use the production application server's deployment tools to deploy the .war, .wlapp and .adapter
files.
C. Use the production application server's deployment tools to deploy the .war file, and the
Worklight console to deploy the .wlapp and.adapter files.
D. Use the production application server's deployment tools to deploy the .war and .adapter files,
and the Worklight console to deploy the.wlapp file.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A banking company has deployed the Application Center for internal use. Before users can see
the mobile client application in the list of available applications, which property of the mobile client
application must be set to true?
A. Label
B. Package
C. Installer
D. Recommended
Answer: C

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Meilleur IBM 000-593 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: 000-593
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 175 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has an existing Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 deployment.
Their environment includes machines running AT&T Unix.
Which statement is true?
A. ITM V5.1.1 supports these machines, so there are no upgrade issues.
B. The customer must set up a separate TMR to monitor the machines running Tivoli Distributed
Monitoring V3.7.
C. Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 and ITM V5.1.1 can coexist on the same TMR, but must be on
separate gateways.
D. Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 and ITM V5.1.1 can coexist on the same TMR, and they can
continue to monitor the machines with DM V3.7.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The customer wants the capability to automatically recover from a specific event using an
automated action.
Where does the Tivoli Administrator define this recovery action?
A. endpoint
B. Profile Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Workbench
D. IBM Tivoli Health Console
Answer: C

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NO.3 What administrator role is required to create an ITM Monitoring Profile?
A. user
B. super
C. senior
D. admin
Answer: C

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6. What command provides information to the configured Tivoli Business System Manager
CommonListener?
A. wdmcmd
B. wdmcollect
C. wdmheartbeat
D. wdmdiscovery
Answer: D

IBM   000-593   000-593
7. A server administrator calls you one afternoon to inform you that he did not recieve an alert
from a monitor that should have caught a failed application service.
You remember distributing this particular Resource Model earlier in the morning.
You are unable to run a successful status check on the tmw2k engine from the Gateway.
Which two of the following selections will help in troubleshooting the failed Resource Model and
tmw2k engine? (Choose two.)
A. check status of MDist
B. check status of MDist 2
C. check status of endpoint
D. check status of resource model
E. remove the LCFNEW directory and execute 'wdmcmd'
Answer: B,C

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8. A customer has the ITM Web Health Console running in a UNIX environment.
The error message "AMW4805E An error occurred while creating the graph" is displayed when
generating Historical or Online Metric graphs.
What UNIX environment variable needs to be set to correct the problem?
A. LANG
B. PATH
C. SHELL
D. DISPLAY
Answer: D

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9. Which two statements are true about the wdmconfig command? (Choose two.)
A. The wdmconfig command is used to configure ITM resource models.
B. The wdmconfig command is used to query for information concerning the configuration of the
ITM gateway processes.
C. The wdmconfig command is used to query for information concerning the configuration of the
ITM endpoint processes.
D. The wdmconfig command is used to change the values of one or more configuration keys,
governing the operation of the ITM gateway processes.
E. The wdmconfig command is used to configure the values of one or more configuration keys,
governing the operation of the ITM endpoint processes.
Answer: B,D

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10. Which two tables are required to support MDist2? (Choose two.)
A. DIST_STATE
B. DIST_NODE_STATE
C. DIST_NODE_STATUS
D. DIST_STATE_STATUS
E. DIST_PROFILE_STATE
F. DIST_UNKNOWN_STATE
Answer: A,B

IBM examen   000-593   000-593
11. Which two basic functions are provided by the Tivoli Framework? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. C2 security
C. NETBIOS routing
D. delegated administration
E. management by subscription
Answer: D,E

IBM examen   certification 000-593   000-593   000-593
12. On subsequent logins, which two events occur during an endpoint login, assuming the
endpoint can contact its assigned gateway? (Choose two.)
A. The endpoint reads its assigned endpoint gateway from the lcf.dat file.
B. The endpoint broadcasts its login using User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
C. The endpoint login request is received by all managed nodes in the TMR
D. The endpoint manager updates the endpoint gateway's endpoint list cache.
E. The assigned endpoint gateway checks its endpoint list cache for that endpoint.
Answer: A,E

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13. Which command allows multihome hosts to function in the Tivoli environment?
A. odadmin odlist
B. odadmin reexec all
C. odadmin set_iom_by_name
D. odadmin allow_dynamic_ipaddr TRUE
Answer: C

IBM   000-593   000-593   000-593   000-593 examen
14. What are the documented limitations for the number of supported endpoints within one
TMR?
A. 200
B. 2000
C. 20000
D. 200000
Answer: C

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15. Where must the Tivoli Java RDBMS Interface Module be installed?
A. all endpoints
B. any managed node configured as a RIM host
C. any machine where the MDist2 GUI is installed
D. any TMR server where Java applications access a database
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-593   000-593

NO.4 The customer wants to upgrade Tivoli Distributed Monitoring (Advanced Edition) V4.1 to ITM
V5.1.1. What should they do?
A. upgrade first to ITM V5.1 and then to ITM V5.1.1
B. install the latest DM V4.1 patches and then upgrade to ITM V5.1.1
C. install the latest DM V4.1 patches then upgrade to ITM V5.1 and then to ITM V5.1.1
D. upgrade directly from Tivoli Distributed Monitoring (Advanced Edition) V4.1 to ITM V5.1.1
Answer: A

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NO.5 When using the GUI to create a Tivoli senior administrator that will be using the desktop on a
Windows NT managed node, which user name must be entered on the Create Administrator dialog?
A. senior
B. nobody
C. tmersrvd
D. any account name that is valid on that Windows NT managed node
Answer: D

IBM   000-593   000-593   000-593   000-593

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Les meilleures IBM A2090-733 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Passer le test IBM A2090-733, obtenir le Passport peut améliorer la perspective de votre carrière et vous apporter plus de chances à développer votre boulot. Pass4Test est un site très convenable pour les candidats de test Certification IBM A2090-733. Ce site peut offrir les informations plus nouvelles et aussi provider les bonnes chances à se former davantage. Ce sont les points essentiels pour votre succès de test Certification IBM A2090-733.

Code d'Examen: A2090-733
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9 Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 After installing the DB2 Express-C 9 it was discovered that the Development
Workbench was not
available. What
was the reason for that?
A. It must be installed separately.
B. It is not supported with DB2 Express-C 9.
C. Since it is a licensed tool, it must be purchased from IBM.
D. Review the DB2 installation log for errors. Reinstall DB2 Express-C 9.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a
database connection
to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C

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NO.3 An SQL procedure has been developed with several inline SQL PL statements
encapsulated in a
dynamic compound SQL statement. The procedure had been tested and performed well.
After making a
change to the last SQL statement the procedure not only failed to complete, but did not
produce output
from any statements which were not modified. What is the best explanation for this behavior?
A. The dynamic compound SQL is atomic.
B. The procedure doesn't have any savepoints.
C. The procedure has not been correctly re-cataloged.
D. The dynamic compound SQL individual statements are logically dependent on each other.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the minimum privilege required to run a User Defined Function (UDF)?
A. CALL
B. EXECUTE
C. SYSCTRL
D. SYSMAINT
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2090-733 examen   A2090-733

NO.5 Which of the following SQL statements demonstrates the correct usage of a
parameter marker?
A. SELECT ? FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
B. SELECT [] FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
C. SELECT CAST(? AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
D. SELECT CAST([] AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
Answer: C

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NO.6 After executing the following SQL statements: CREATE TABLE tab1 ( col1 INT ,col2
CHAR(1),
PRIMARY KEY(col1)); CREATE TABLE tab2 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1), FOREIGN KEY
(col1)
REFERENCES tab1(col1) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); INSERT
INTO tab1
VALUES(1, 'A'); INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(2, 'B'); INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(3, 'A');
INSERT INTO
tab2 VALUES(2, 'B'); UPDATE tab1 SET col1 = col1 + 1;DELETE FROM tab1 WHERE col2
= 'B';
What values will be returned by the following SQL query?SELECT col1, col2 FROM tab1
A.COL1 COL2
==== ==== 2 'B'
A. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'B'
B. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A'
C. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 1 'A' 2 'B'
D. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A' 3 'B'
Answer: B

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NO.7 Table EMPLOYEE contains the following rows: EMPNO FIRSTNME LASTNAME
WORKDEPT
000010.CHRISTINE HAAS A00 000020 MICHAEL THOMPSON B01 000030 SALLY KWAN
C01 The
isolation level for Application 1 is set to CS and autocommit is disabled. The isolation level for
Application
2 is set to CS and the autocommit is enabled. The following statements are executed in
sequence:
Application 1:
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY empno OPEN C1
FETCH C1
FETCH C1 Application 2:
UPDATE employee SET lastname = 'MILLFORD' WHERE empno = '000020' Which of the
following
statements is correct?
A. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 2 runs with autocommit enabled so no row
level locks are
necessary for the update.
B. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 1 holds a row level lock that is compatible
with the lock
required by Application 2.
C. The UPDATE fails because Application 1 holds a row level read lock that is in conflict with
the lock
required by Application 2.C.
D. The UPDATE fails because the row level locks held by Application 1 have been escalated
to table lock
so updates by other connections are disallowed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual
Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B

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NO.9 A table named ACTIVITY.LOG was created by executing the following
statement:CREATE TABLE
activity.log (event VARCHAR(128), date DATE) Then, a stored procedure named
ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT
was created by executing the following statement: CREATE PROCEDURE
activity.logEvent(IN stmtType
CHAR(1)) LANGUAGE SQLMainBody: BEGIN DECLARE sqlerrm VARCHAR(256)
DEFAULT '';
DECLARE ErrorIndicator CHAR(1) DEFAULT 'N';
SQLStmt: BEGIN
DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
BEGIN
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END;
IF stmtType = 'I' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Insert Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'U' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Update Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'D' THEN I
NSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Delete Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSE
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END IF;
END SQLStmt;
IF ErrorIndicator = 'Y' THEN
SIGNAL SQLSTATE '70000' SET message_text = 'Could not update activity log.';
END IF;
END MainBody
User USER1 has the authority to access/manipulate data in the ACTIVITY.LOG table as well
as to invoke
the
procedure ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT. If user USER1 executes the following commands:
CONNECT TO sample USER user1 USING ibmdb2;
DELETE FROM activity.log;
CALL activity.logEvent('i'); What will be the results?
A. The string "Insert Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the
ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
B. The string "Update Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the
ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
C. The string "Delete Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the
ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
D. The error message 'SQL0438N Application raised error with diagnostic text: "Could not
update activity
log.".SQLSTATE=70000' will be generated.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following restrictions pertains to embedded SQL external routines?
A. Environment variables with names that start with 'DB2' are not allowed.
B. Executing statements or commands that are connection related is not allowed.
C. Environment variable values that were set before the DB2 database manager is started
are not
available.
D. When returning result sets from external nested stored procedures, a cursor cannot be
opened with
the same name onmultiple nesting levels.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Given the following table and view definitions: CREATE TABLE city ( cityid INT
GENERATED
ALWAYS AS IDENTITY , city_name CHAR(10), state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN
('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));CREATE VIEW city_view AS ( SELECT city_name||','||state_code
AS fullname
FROM city WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL')); and the following trigger
definition:CREATE
TRIGGER city_viewInput INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view REFERENCING NEW AS
nFOR EACH
ROW MODE DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC DECLARE delim INT;SET delim = LOCATE(',',
n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code) VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1),
SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));END; If the following SQL statments are
executed:INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ; INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL');
INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI'); INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX');
INSERT INTO
city_view VALUES('Denver,CO'); How many rows will be returned by the following query:
SELECT *
FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.12 An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following
query:SELECT
t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1 If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX
database and
table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the followingDB2 object types must
the identifier
T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B

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NO.13 Given the following table definition:CREATE TABLE staff ( id SMALLINT NOT NULL,
name
VARCHAR(9), dept SMALLINT, job CHAR(5)) Assuming that the following statements
execute
successfully:Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand()
cmdStaff.CommandText =
"SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)" Which of the following is the correct way
to provide a
value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value ="Mgr"
Answer: D

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NO.14 Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C

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NO.15 If the following code is executed in the order shown:conDB2 As
DB2ConnectionconDB2.ConnectionString =
"Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"conDB2.Open() Which of the following
statements is
correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously
defined in the
local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously
defined in the
local database catalog.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is a characteristic of an application that uses a Distributed Unit of
Work
(DUOW)?
A. A single transaction can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
B. Multiple transactions can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
C. A single transaction can read and/or modify data stored across multiple database servers.
D. Multiple transactions can read and/or modify data stored on multiple database servers
provided each
transaction only accesses a single server.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
=====
==== ======
======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN
D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:CREATE TRIGGER track_chgsAFTER UPDATE OF
salary, name,
empno ON emp REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE
DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO changes SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP
FROM
ntable; END; After executing the following SQL statements:DELETE FROM changes;
UPDATE emp SET
deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95'; INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90',
35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;UPDATE emp SET salary =
salary +
1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;What value will be returned by this query?SELECT count(*)
FROM
changes
A. 2
B. 3 C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is a SQL stored procedure which will return a resultset
containing ID, NAME,
DEPT and JOB values out of the STAFF table?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set() LANGUAGE SQL BEGIN SELECT id, name, dept,
job FROM
staff; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN SELECT
id, name,
dept, job FROM staff; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR
SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN C1; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set()
LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN c1; END
Answer: D

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NO.19 Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a
fix to be applied.
Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the
table with a
Cursor Stability isolation level. What would be the best course of action to improve the
system's
concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT
operation.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the
DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a
syntax errorexception is thrown. Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for
this syntax
error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C2140-833
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Object Oriented Analysis and Design-Part1(Analysis))
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true?
A. The UML is a development process for software intensive systems.
B. The UML is a process-dependent language used for visualizing software artifacts.
C. The UML is a modeling language for software blueprints.
D. The UML is a visual programming language.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An architect looks at two classes. The first class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(),getTotal(), and findAverage(). The second class has the following
operations:
getName(),getSize(), findAverage(), findMinimum(), and findMaximum(). The two classes
share the same
superclass. Which operations are most likely contained in the superclass?
A. getName(), getSize(), and findAverage()
B. findMaximum(), findMinimum(), getSize(), and getTotal()
C. getName(), findAverage(), and findMaximum()
D. getName(), getSize(), getTotal(), and findAverage()
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about an iterative development process?
A. Testing and integration take place in every iteration.
B. An iteration focuses on partial completion of selected use-case realizations.
C. It encourages user feedback in later iterations.
D. It is based on functional decomposition of a system.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which three ways does a structured class differ from a traditional class? (Choose
three.)
A. It clearly defines the class boundary via an encapsulation shell.
B. It brings public interfaces into the class via ports.
C. It shows the role that the class plays.
D. It defines messages between itself and other classes.
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 An architect is responsible for creating an Analysis Model for a system. Which area of
focus is
essential for the creation of this model?
A. hardware on which the system will be deployed
B. behavior of the objects that comprise the system
C. evolution of analysis classes into design classes
D. performance requirements of the system
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the focus of analysis?
A. translating functional requirements into code
B. translating requirements into a system design
C. translating real-world concepts into solution-oriented objects
D. translating functional requirements into software concepts
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are analysis classes?
A. early conjectures on the composition of the system that usually change over time, rarely
surviving
intact into Implementation
B. incomplete classes that require a programmer to formalize operation signatures and
attribute types
before they can be implemented
C. the classes inside a systems Business Object or Domain Model, in UML form
D. a prototype of a systems user interface, developed during the Analysis Phase, which
allows users to
define the systems look and feel
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which is a characteristic of a structured class?
A. must have one interface for each role it plays
B. can play only one role, no matter how many objects transact with it
C. can play multiple roles that vary on the objects that interact with it
D. is limited to one role, but can have multiple interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why is encapsulation important? (Choose two.)
A. It describes the relationship between two subclasses.
B. It places operations and attributes in the same object.
C. It allows other objects to change private operations and attributes of an object.
D. It prevents other objects from directly changing the attributes of an object.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. The interface should have a clear purpose.
B. A single interface should include as many possible methods, if not all methods, that may
be shared by
objects that implement the interface.
C. An interface should be used to restrict which methods are exposed to a client.
D. Classes may have multiple interfaces depending on the purpose of each interface it
implements.
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: C2090-719
Nom d'Examen: IBM (InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 A control flow requires the use of a variable that seldom changes after deployment.
Which phase should be considered?
A. EXECUTION_INSTANCE
B. DEPLOYMENT
C. DEPLOYMENT_PREP
D. RUNTIME
Answer: D

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NO.2 In a three node configuration, which two servers can contain InfoSphere Warehouse
Intelligent Miner
components? (Choose two.)
A. Data Server
B. Mining Server
C. Client
D. Web Server
E. WebSphere Administration Server
Answer: AC

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NO.3 During which installation and configuration process can user groups be mapped to
each role?
A. the installation of InfoSphere Warehouse Server for the Administration node
B. the installation of InfoSphere Warehouse Server for Data node
C. the installation of WebSphere Application Server
D. the execution of the InfoSphere Warehouse Configuration Tool
Answer: D

IBM   C2090-719   C2090-719

NO.4 Which two InfoSphere Warehouse components are included in the logical group for the
Application
Server? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Data Server Client
B. Intelligent Miner Visualization
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Workload Management plug-in
E. Design Studio
Answer: AC

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NO.5 What is meant by "Information as a Service"?
A. expanding a traditional data warehouse with XML capabilities for the data
B. extending the traditional data warehouse by providing business context layers to the data
C. accessing a traditional data warehouse with a Web-based application for the data
D. storing all analytical data in a multidimensional cube instead of a traditional data
warehouse
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer wants to evaluate deep data compression in an AIX development
environment.
Which edition of InfoSphere Warehouse should they buy?
A. InfoSphere Warehouse Base
B. InfoSphere Warehouse Intermediate
C. InfoSphere Warehouse Advanced
D. InfoSphere Warehouse Developer
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two reasons for a combination of database and front-end tool based analytic
architectures in
a data warehouse implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Less data is moved across the network, making queries run faster.
B. The database can provide consistent analytic calculations and query speed for common
queries.
C. The combination of architectures will ensure fast query performance.
D. Multidimensional queries cannot be processed in SQL by the database engine so it must
be done
using a front-end tool.
E. The front-end tool allows for additional and more complex algorithms specific to
applications that use
that tool.
Answer: BE

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NO.8 What does a Data Design Project within Design Studio contain?
A. physical data model
B. SQW work flows
C. data mining flows
D. logical data model
Answer: A

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NO.9 Relational database and a database model that is often a star or snowflake schema
are
characteristics of which engine storage structure?
A. MOLAP
B. ROLAP
C. Multidimensional cubing
D. Proprietary
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two functions can the Design Studio perform? (Choose two.)
A. Run the Optimization Advisor and analyze whether the recommended MQTs will be used
given a
predefined workload.
B. Drop cube models from the InfoSphere Warehouse metadata database.
C. Move and transform data.
D. Rebuild an OLAP cube's member cache.
E. Add an OLAP cube to the cube server.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 When connecting an Output Port of a Table Source to the Names Port of a Sequences
Operator, what
are two valid methods of mapping columns? (Choose two.)
A. by Name
B. by Index
C. by Position
D. by Attribute
E. by Key
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which statement is true about Rational Data Architect (RDA) integration with the
Design Studio for data
modeling?
A. Design Studio integrates both logical and physical data modeling capabilities from RDA.
B. The full RDA can be installed into the Design Studio platform for logical and physical data
modeling.
C. Design Studio includes the physical data modeling component to help you implement your
physical
model.
D. Design Studio is based on IBM Data Server Developer Workbench and a full set of RDA
components.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer needs to merge unstructured repositories with a traditional data mining
solution for a
production environment.
Which edition of InfoSphere Warehouse should they buy?
A. InfoSphere Warehouse Base
B. InfoSphere Warehouse Intermediate
C. InfoSphere Warehouse Enterprise
D. InfoSphere Warehouse Developer
Answer: C

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NO.14 You can use the Admin Console to add, remove, start, stop, or restart cubes.
For which other purpose can the Admin Console be used?
A. to rebuild a cubes member cache
B. to empty the member cache for a cube
C. to populate the member cache using a specified MDX query
D. to delete the files on the file system that are holding the member cache data
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two tools should an InfoSphere Warehouse developer use to perform SQL
Warehousing
design tasks? (Choose two.)
A. WebSphere Administration Console
B. InfoSphere Warehouse Design Studio
C. InfoSphere Warehouse Admin Console
D. SQL Warehousing Tool
E. IBM Data Studio
Answer: BD

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NO.16 A customer wants to include analysis of product sales for their locations at various
levels of their
product lines and various levels of their geography.
Which two schema considerations are necessary to satisfy the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. a product dimension with location attributes
B. a product dimension with product line hierarchies
C. a location dimension with product attributes
D. a location dimension with geography hierarchies
E. a product dimension with geography hierarchies
Answer: BD

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NO.17 If you roll-in daily and roll-out monthly, which approach reduces the number of table
partitions and
eases the DBA administrative tasks?
A. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for day.
B. Specify a MDC on day and a table partition key for month.
C. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for month.
D. Specify a MDC on month and a table partition key for day.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two functions can the SQW tool perform for a data flow? (Choose two.)
A. business processes such as secure command and secure FTP
B. range partitioning for staging tables
C. filtering and sorting for operator properties such as table columns
D. operators for row compression, roll-in, and roll-out
E. parallel process execution
Answer: BC

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NO.19 What is a benefit of using warehouse based analytics?
A. It provides more functions in the available calculation set.
B. It ensures the user response time will always be fast.
C. It provides end users the ability to add additional calculations at report time.
D. It provides a common pool of analytic methods to produce consistent answers across all
users.
Answer: D

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NO.20 When using InfoSphere Warehouse, in which two occasions is it appropriate to run the
InfoSphere
Warehouse configuration tool? (Choose two.)
A. any time you need to do reverse engineering
B. immediately before installation
C. any time after installation to modify your configuration
D. immediately after installation
E. any time after a new user is added to the warehousing solution
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: A2180-374
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator has created the following MQ objects on two systems:
SYSTEM A
crtmqm -C "VEGGIE QUEUE MANAGER" -LL -Q -D POTATO VEGGIE
DEFINE QR(APPLE) RQMNAME(FRUIT) RNAME(PEACH)
DEFINE QL(DLQ)
DEFINE QL(POTATO) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEF CHL('VEGGIE. FRUIT') CHLTYPE(SDR) TRPTYPE(TCP)
CONNAME('9.84.100.7(1414)') +
XMITQ('POTATO')
SYSTEM B
crtmqm -C "FRUIT QUEUE MANAGER" -LL -Q -D GRAPE FRUIT
DEFINE QL(GRAPE) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEFINE QL(PEACH)
DEF CHL('VEGGIE. FRUIT') CHLTYPE(RCVR) TRPTYPE(TCP)
An application connects to queue manager VEGGIE and puts a message to queue APPLE.
On which
queue does the message get delivered before it gets picked up by the sender channel?
A. POTATO
B. APPLE
C. GRAPE
D. PEACH
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Eclipse version is a prerequisite to use MQ Explorer to administer IBM
WebSphere MQ V7.0 on
Windows?
A. 3.3
B. 3.2
C. 3.1
D. 3.0
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are true, regarding applications that communicate
via
IBMWebSphere MQ?
IBM WebSphere MQ applications have to agree upon:
A. the platforms they are running on
B. the name(s) of the queue(s) used
C. the maximum number of messages sent within a given time period
D. the layout of the message data exchanged
E. the network protocol used
Answer: BD

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NO.4 A legacy application uses MQPUT to send messages to a queue INV. Which set of
MQSC commands
below will successfully configure the queue manager so that a number of
JMS applications can receive these messages by subscribing to topic
Inventory/CurrentItems?
A. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE QALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
B. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE TALIAS(INV)
TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
C. DEFINE TOPIC (INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems) QALIAS(INV)
D. DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(Inventory/CurrentItems) + TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator using WebSphere MQ Explorer is unable to connect to queue
manager PROD after it
has been migrated, and receives error message SYSTEM.MQEXPLORER.REPLY.MODEL
not defined.
Which command will refresh the existing system objects to resolve this issue?
A. strmqm c PROD
B. strmqm a PROD
C. strmqm ss PROD
D. strmqm si PROD
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator created a queue manager Paint.queue.manager on AIX with circular
logging. The
administrator then was told that the system will be used for production, so the logging needs
to be
switched to linear.
How can the administrator make this change?
A. Edit "/var/mqm/mqs.ini" and change LogType=LINEAR
B. Edit "/var/mqm/qmgrs/Paint.queue.manager/qm.ini" and change LogType=LINEAR
C. Issue the MQSC command ALTER QMGR LOGTYPE(LINEAR)
D. Recreate queue manager with crtmqm -c "Paint shop" -ll -q Paint.queue.manager
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator wants to define a IBMWebSphere MQ object so that the applications
can be
prevented from sending messages to the processing applications queue APPQ, but continue
to allow
administrators to send test messages to the processing application. The application will send
messages
using an object
ABC.
What MQSC command should be used?
A. DEFINE QALIAS(ABC) BASEQ(APPQ)
B. DEFINE QALIAS(ABC) TARGET(APPQ)
C. DEFINE QREMOTE(ABC) TARGET(APPQ)
D. DEFINE QLOCAL(ABC) ALIASQ(APPQ)
E. DEFINE QMODEL(ABC) BASEQ(APPQ)
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator has been asked to determine which files are needed to restart a
queue manager
configured with linear logging.
Which of the following MQSC commands will determine which log files are still required?
A. DISPLAY QMGR
B. DISPLAY QMSTATUS
C. DISPLAY QMSTATUS ALL
D. DISPLAY QMGR RESTART
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator wants to prevent the channel initiator process from starting when a
queue manager
QMA on AIX is started.
Which action(s) will accomplish this?
A. Restart the queue manager using strmqm ns QMA.
B. Restart the queue manager using strmqm chinit no QMA.
C. Issue the command ALTER QMGR SCHINIT(DISABLED), then restart the queue
manager using
strmqm QMA.
D. Edit the file qm.ini for QMA and add an entry ChannelInitiator = No in the CHANNELS
stanza, then
restart the queue manager using strmqm QMA
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are the four predefined message types?
A. Request, response, publication, datagram
B. Publication, subscription, request, response
C. Request, reply, report, datagram
D. Request, broadcast, acknowledgment, response
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which features of IBM WebSphere MQ specifically provide robust message transport?
A. Data integrity, security, parallel processing
B. Asynchronous delivery, once and once-only delivery, persistent messaging
C. Time independence, no duplicate delivery, synchronous processing
D. Assured delivery, application parallelism, time dependent applications
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are the advantages of using queue-sharing groups in IBM WebSphere MQ?
A. workload balancing, remote administration
B. improved performance, ease of monitoring
C. scalability, end-to-end security, data integrity
D. scalability, high availability, workload balancing
Answer: D

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NO.13 A company running IBM WebSphere MQ V5.3 on UNIX upgraded to IBM WebSphere
MQ V7.0.
Immediately after the migration, what is the administrator expected to do?
Start the:
A. MQSeries service
B. queue manager and listener simultaneously
C. queue manager before starting the listener
D. listener before starting the queue manager
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following are performance enhancements to the Java Message Service
provider
implementation in IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Read Ahead
B. Support for channel exits written in C/C++
C. Asynchronous Put
D. Message selection performed by Queue Manager
E. Ability to access all MQMD fields for IBM WebSphere MQ messages.
Answer: ACD

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NO.15 An administrator has created a queue manager on AIX system A, using the command
crtmqm ll QMA.
What command will create a backup queue manager for QMA on AIX system B?
A. crtmqm ll QMB
B. crtmqm ll QMA
C. crtmqm lb QMA
D. crtmqm ll backup QMA
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator has been asked to create a queue manager alias for QM1 to be used
for
communication
between remote queue managers.
What MQSC command will create the queue manager alias?
A. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(' ') XMITQ(QM1)
B. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(' ') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(QM1)
C. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME('Q1') RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(' ')
D. DEF QL(QM1.ALIAS) RQMNAME(QM1)
Answer: B

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NO.17 An application deployed on z/OS was causing frequent abends.
Which of the following options from the IPCS Dump Component Panel can an administrator
use to
analyze
the problem?
A. CSQWDMP
B. ASMCHECK
C. DIVDATA
D. DAEDATA
Answer: A

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NO.18 For the Solaris platform, which databases are supported as a resource manager in
transactions
coordinated by IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Oracle, Derby, My SQL
B. DB2, Derby, Teradata
C. DB2, Oracle, Informix, Sybase
D. DB2, SQL Server, Sybase, Informix
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two user profiles are mandatory to correctly run IBM WebSphere MQ on
i5/OS?
A. QMQM, QMQMADM
B. QMQMADIM, mqm
C. mqm, QMQM
D. mqm, MUSR_MQADMIN
Answer: A

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NO.20 An administrator will install IBM WebSphere MQ on an AIX platform. There is a
requirement to
configure
the installation to store the queue managers data files under a directory tree different from
the default
specified by the installation.
After creating the appropriate directory tree, the administrator should:
A. specify the file location using the -ld option when running the crtmqm command.
B. add an entry for the variable MQSPREFIX in /var/mqm/service.env before running the
crtmqm
command.
C. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify LogDefaultPath in the LogDefaults stanza before running
the crtmqm
command.
D. edit /var/mqm/mqs.ini to specify DefaultPrefix in the AllQueueManagers stanza before
running the
crtmqm command.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2020-205
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Controller Technical Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 47 Q&As

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NO.1 What can be used to provide remote users with access to Controller over limited
bandwidth networks?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Citrix (Terminal Server)
C. Deterministic Network Enhancers
D. Installing the Gateway in a DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.2 Enhance Reporting Optimization uses which of the following method(s)?
A. RSS 1.0 or higher, if the Database OS is Unix
B. File Copy, if the database OS is Windows
C. RDP to the Web Services Server
D. Controller's FastNet copy utility
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which component of the Controller architecture processes all requests for downloading
Controller
components to the end user's computer?
A. Client Distribution Server
B. Content Management Server
C. Web Services Server
D. Report Server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why is the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK needed?
A. To allow users to publish their Framework Manager models for use with Controller.
B. It provides a Graphical User Interface for configuring the code groups.
C. It is used to configure the Controller Data Mart Database.
D. It is needed when using Controller with SSL (Secure Socket Layer).
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does configuring the .Net 2.0 Framework accomplish?
A. It allows the Controller COM+ object to access the Controller Database.
B. It allows users to communicate with the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK.
C. It creates a Trust between the Controller Client Distribution Server and the Controller client
computer.
D. It allows for the encryption of communication between internal server components.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2180-376
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, Solution Design)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 A company has an MQI application on Windows that continuously browses a queue to
identify a
message before removing it for processing. The application has only one program reading
the queue. The
company is experiencing increased volumes, and there is a need to add additional instances
of the
browsing program. Which of the following options could help with splitting and managing the
workload
across the multiple browsing programs?
A. Use browse with lock
B. Use browse with message under cursor
C. Use browse with priority sequencing
D. Use MQ cooperative browsing optionsUse MQ? cooperative browsing options
E. Share an object handle across the programs
Answer: A D

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NO.2 A bus company is implementing a solution which will display in real-time the arrival
information of the
next bus on the bus stop sign. Each bus is sending information about its position at regular
intervals. What
is the best way of implementing this solution given that there is limited bandwidth for
communication? The
bus stop sign:
A. subscribes to messages published by the bus
B. queries a central system for bus position using SOAP over HTTP
C. replicates its own database every few minutes with a database stored on a central system
D. sends a message with a request every few minutes to a central system in order to query
bus position.
All replies are compressed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An application is required to retrieve rows from a relational database table and send
them across
WebSphere MQ to a remote queue manager, where a receiving application consumes them.
After a
successful MQPUT of a message, the corresponding row is to be deleted from the database.
It is intended
to run this application using the free WebSphere MQ Client. The delivery of each message is
to be
guaranteed. Which of the following is true about this implementation?
A. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; the Extended Transactional Client
is required,
since two phase commits are needed for this solution.
B. It cannot be done using the free WebSphere MQ Client; a local queue manager is required
to support
the guaranteed delivery of the messages.
C. This solution can be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client, provided that the
receiving
application can recognize and handle repeated delivery of the same message.
D. This solution cannot be implemented using the free WebSphere MQ Client; persistent
messaging is not
supported by the free WebSphere MQ Client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A new WebSphere MQ application with high volume requirements is being designed
to run on Solaris.
The solution designer is concerned about the performance of the application. The
WebSphere MQ for
Solaris V7 Performance Evaluation Report SupportPac provides all but one of the following
types of
information to the solution designer. Which is NOT discussed in this document?
A. Suggestions for tuning WebSphere MQ
B. Information that can be used to size the company new applicationInformation that can be
used to size
the company? new application
C. Evaluation of the relative cost of one WebSphere MQ API vs. another in different
scenarios
D. Evaluation of the relative cost of persistent messages vs. nonpersistent messages in
different
scenarios
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which new feature in WebSphere MQ V7.0 needs to be taken into account when
WebSphere MQ
solutions are deployed into mixed z/OS and distributed environments?
A. Queue sharing groups are now available between z/OS and other platforms; however, at
least one
queue manager in the group must still be hosted on z/OS.
B. The use of WebSphere MQ Explorer for the administration of z/OS based queue
managers no longer
requires a license for the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) for a limited number of users.
C. WebSphere MQ Client applications from distributed environments can now directly
connect to z/OS
queue managers; the Client Attachment Feature (CAF) is no longer required.
D. A WebSphere MQ Client implementation on z/OS is now available, so that full WebSphere
MQ no
longer needs to be installed on all z/OS systems that want to participate in message queuing.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An application queue is triggered for trigger type of DEPTH. Following this, what
action should the job
or program that was started as a result of the trigger take before it ends, so that the queue
will be
triggered again the next time that trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) is reached?
A. It needs to use MQSET or an ALTER QLOCAL command to reset triggering (TRIGGER)
for the queue.
B. It needs to reset trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) for the queue through an MQSET or ALTER
QLOCAL
command.
C. It needs to reset trigger depth (TRIGDPTH) and triggering (TRIGGER) for the queue,
using MQSET or
an ALTER QLOCAL command.
D. No action needs to be taken. The queue manager will create the next trigger message
when the
current depth of the queue once again reaches trigger depth (TRIGDPTH).
Answer: A

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NO.7 A solution designer is considering different API options for a new WebSphere MQ
application. Only IBM
supported WebSphere MQ programming options should be considered. Which one of the
following is not
supported by IBM?
A. XMS
B. JMS
C. Perl
D. WebSphere MQ classes for .NET
Answer: C

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NO.8 A master data management solution has been implemented for the enterprise.
Updates with customer
and product data need to be distributed to several applications. What is the BEST approach
given that not
all applications might be interested in every customer type?
A. Use the publish/subscribe paradigm.
B. Receive updates on application-specific queues. Message properties and selectors should
be used for
filtering.
C. Browse a common queue for updates.
D. Use a request-reply pattern and query the MDM (Master Data Management) application.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A solution designer has requested that several queues on a z/OS queue manager be
defined with index
type set to message ID, i.e., INDXTYPE(MSGID). Why would a designer use this setting?
A. It creates a permanent index of MSGIDs that are currently in use for this queue.
B. It allows MQGET commands to have significantly improved performance when getting
messages by
message ID.
C. It ensures that any new MSGIDs are unique as well as making the retrieval of messages
based on
message ID more efficient.
D. The queue manager will keep an index of MSGIDs that have already been used to make
sure that the
message ID is unique when a new message is put.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An application is being designed which will send updates about customers to different
applications.
Given the sensitive nature of the data, the sending application needs to manage which
applications
receive the data. Which of the following is the best solution to ensure this?
A. Apply the publish-subscribe paradigm (one-to-many).
B. Each application should have its own queue on which it will listen for updates
C. All applications should listen on the same queue and after processing the message should
update its
header so the last application process can remove it from the queue
D. All receiving applications should listen on the same queue and the sending application
should send
separate copies of the message with attributes which allow the receiving applications to
search the queue
for their own copies.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following should generally be avoided if an application is being designed
for optimal
efficiency?
A. Make messages nonpersistent if they do not need to be recoverable.
B. Code programs to open and close queues, or connect and disconnect from the queue
manager only
once, if the queues or connection will be used again.
C. Bundle the data to be transmitted into as few messages as possible (e.g., rather than
sending a
hundred 1MB messages, send one 100MB message).
D. Group a batch of messages within a unit of work where appropriate, so that they can be
committed all
at once (e.g., get and put messages under syncpoint and commit them in groups of 10, rather
than
committing them individually).
Answer: C

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NO.12 An application creates documents in PDF format, which are subsequently transmitted
via WebSphere
MQ to a number of other servers in the network. Each server runs its own queue manager.
The
documents received by some servers are consistently corrupted, whereas on other servers
the
documents are intact. Other message traffic seems unaffected. What is the most likely
source of this
problem?
A. The environment variable MQCCSID specifies an incorrect value on the affected servers.
B. Incompatible message compression parameters are configured on the sending and
receiving channel
agents.
C. The network connection to the affected servers is unreliable and a message retry exit was
not specified
on the sending channel agent.
D. The affected servers run different CCSIDs from the servers creating the documents and
the message
descriptor specifies MQMD.Format as QSTR? causing message conversion.?QSTR?
causing message
conversion.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A solution developer is writing a C language application on a UNIX platform. There is
a requirement
for the transactions to be processed within syncpoint control. What is the MINIMUM required
MQ
component on the application platform to achieve this functionality?
A. WebSphere MQ Client Installation
B. WebSphere MQ Extended Transactional Client Installation
C. WebSphere MQ Server Installation
D. WebSphere MQ Server Installation with the XA capabilities configured
Answer: A

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NO.14 A solution designer is evaluating distribution scenarios and wants to understand the
circumstances
where messages are not delivered as expected. Which of the following are reasons that a
message is
placed on the DLQ?
A. A trigger monitor is unable to start the triggered program
B. The destination queue is full when the program puts the message to the local queue
C. The queue manager is quiescing when the program puts the message to the queue
D. A sending message channel agent is unable to perform data conversion when required for
the
message
E. The program tries to put a message to an invalid local queue
Answer: A D

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NO.15 There are multiple instances of a cluster queue. Which of the following is
recommended practice for the
default binding (DEFBIND) parameter?
A. Allow the local WebSphere MQ administrators to define default binding as they think best
for each
instance of the queue.
B. Require the WebSphere MQ administrators to set default binding to the same value for all
instances of
the queue in the cluster.
C. The solution designer should consult with the development team and local WebSphere
MQ
administrator to determine how best to configure default binding of each queue manager.
D. The best option is to accept the default setting for default binding on each queue manager,
as it should
have been given the optimal setting by its WebSphere MQ administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.16 The topic object for the topic x/y is defined with WILDCARD=PASSTHRU. Which of
the following is the
most appropriate use of a wildcard for this topic?
A. Subscribe to topic x/y/#
B. Publish the information to topic x/y/#
C. Publish the information to topic x/y/+
D. It is not possible to use a wildcard with this topic
Answer: A

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NO.17 An organization has a widely distributed online environment, where applications are
connected via
WebSphere MQ messaging. A business requirement is brought forward that certain mission
critical
applications record audit trail data which is to be collected in a central location. No
information can be lost.
A central data warehouse must be loaded daily with this information as soon as possible after
end of
business. Which of the following proposed solutions is best in terms of the requirement,
reliability and
overall performance? The audit trail data is:
A. written to a file on the local file system and transmitted to the central audit trail server via
reliable file
transfer over WebSphere MQ.
B. sent as a persistent WebSphere MQ message and forwarded to the queue manager of the
central
server asynchronously.
C. inserted into a central database table via a remote access database client under control of
the local
WebSphere MQ transaction.
D. inserted into a local database table under two phase commit using WebSphere MQ as the
transaction
manager and a bulk update is performed at end of day.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Queue Managers QMA and QMB both have a cluster queue definition for Q1. A
sending application
resides on QMC, which is also part of the cluster. The messages being sent from QMC
contain data from
the same account that needs to be processed at the destination (Q1) in the same order that
the
messages were sent. Which one of the following is MOST LIKELY to enforce the sending
order on the
destination queue, assuming the message can be routed to the destination queue?
A. The sending application sends the messages for the account within the same unit of work
B. The sending application specifies the destination Queue Manager and Queue name on
the open for
Q1 and sends the messages for the account
C. The sending application opens Q1 with MQOO_BIND_ON_OPEN and sends the
messages for the
account
D. Q1 is defined with DEFBIND(OPEN) and the sending application opens Q1 and sends the
messages
for the account
Answer: C

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NO.19 A suite of server applications is to be designed to support the graceful shutdown
capabilities of
WebSphere MQ implemented via the ail ifA suite of server applications is to be designed to
support the
graceful shutdown capabilities of WebSphere MQ implemented via the ?ail if
quiescing?feature. Which of
the following best describes the use of this feature?
A. Applications that have this feature activated can request an extra grace period of a
configurable length
that will allow them to complete critical processing before the queue manager will disconnect
them.
B. Applications using this feature will be informed of the queue manager quiescing via a
completion code
of MQCC_FAILED and a reason code of MQRC_Q_MGR_QUIESCING (or
MQRC_CONNECTION_QUIESCING) and will be disconnected automatically. Applications
are expected
to
periodically attempt reconnection.
C. Using FAIL_IF_QUIESCING options where valid with MQI calls, an application can finalize
MQ
processing, avoiding loss of data, before the queue manager is shut down.
D. When a queue manager is configured with the FAIL_IF_QUIESCING option and is being
shut down, it
will reject all MQI calls with a completion code of MQCC_FAILED and a reason code of
MQRC_Q_MGR_QUIESCING (or MQRC_CONNECTION_QUIESCING) in order to assure
fast and
reliable termination.
Answer: C

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NO.20 In designing a solution with availability in mind, the designer is considering the following
two
alternatives, one using a cluster queue and the other using a shared queue. In each
scenario, Queue
Managers QMA and QMB will both be capable of running Application A. In the first scenario,
Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on Windows accessing cluster queue QA. In the second scenario,
Application A
will run on QMA and QMB on z/OS accessing shared queue QA. Which of the following
describes the
availability scenarios in the situation where QMA fails?
A. For Windows, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to
process are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
B. For z/OS, the delivered messages on QA that Application A on QMA did not get to process
are
available for processing by Application A on QMB
C. For Windows, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are made
available for
processing on QMB
D. For z/OS, messages from QA that were in flight on QMA when it failed are unavailable for
processing
by QMB
Answer: B

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