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Code d'Examen: 250-365
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for Windows(NBU 6.5))
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 NetBackup Operations Manager provides some useful utilities to help manage the NOM database.
Which command is used to launch the utility to perform NOM maintenance?
A.NOMadmincmd
B.NOMadmin
C.NOMcmd
D.NOMadm
Answer:B

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NO.2 Consider the following: Your environment has one master server and six SAN media servers. The
systems use Shared Storage Option (SSO) to share ten tape drives on a single robot. Backups run at
night to various media servers and you want to duplicate all backups during the day. All duplications must
run on the master server to free media server resources. What would you do to allow the master server to
perform all duplications?
A.Clear Drive Duplication Enabled in the Device Manager for SAN media servers.
B.In the Vault policy, set Alternate Server Duplicate Disable for SAN media servers.
C.Set an offsite volume pool for master server access only.
D.Set an alternate read server in the Vault Management Properties tab.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which actions can you take when performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003
system? (Choose two.)
A.You can deselect Veritas Snapshot Provider.
B.You can change the default port numbers.
C.You can only add up to five media servers.
D.You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
E.You can select to install the EMM database server.
Answer:A B

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NO.4 Which statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 6.5?
(Choose two.)
A.All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B.All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C.A media server may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
D.A client may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
E.A master server may be one major revision level lower than a media server.
Answer:C D

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NO.5 Which backup method can restore individual files from a raw disk backup?
A.Copy on write snapshot
B.Mirror snapshot
C.FlashBackup
D.True image restore
Answer:C

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NO.6 You have just installed a NetBackup 6.5 master server and the EMM server is on a different machine.
In addition to bprd, bpjobd, and nbpem, which other processes would be running on the master server if
the installation was successful?
A.bpbrm, nbrb
B.bpdbm, nbemm
C.bpdbm, nbjm
D.bpbrm, nbjm
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.A master server may use more than one EMM server.
D.A master server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which factors affect the physical expiration of media? (Choose two.)
A.Date
B.Media full
C.Number of mounts
D.Media being moved to a new server
E.Changing the backup retention level
Answer:A C

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NO.9 Which report provides a list of media that were used in the last five hours?
A.Tape Lists
B.Tape Written
C.Tape Contents
D.Tape Summary
E.Status of Backups
Answer:B

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NO.10 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer:B

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NO.11 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.within the EMM database
B.on the EMM server in binary format
C.on the master server in binary format
D.within the master server's Sybase database
Answer:C

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NO.12 What is the name of the Netbackup service running after installation of a Windows client?
A.NetBackup Windows Service
B.NetBackup Client Service
C.NetBackup Remote Service
D.NetBack File System Service
Answer:B

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NO.13 What is updated during a NetBackup installation on Windows 2003?
A.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\hosts
B.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and Windows Registry
C.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\hosts
D.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and Windows Control Panel
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which two commands can be used to check and update the robot inventory? (Choose two.)
A.vmcheck
B.bpupdate
C.vmchange
D.vmupdate
E.vmcheckxxx
Answer:D E

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NO.15 Which NetBackup option uses snapshot technology to perform rapid snapshot-based restores?
A.Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR)
B.True image restore with move detection
C.Disk staging storage unit restore
D.Instant Recovery
Answer:D

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NO.16 Netbackup 6.5 is configured with a disk storage unit with staging enabled. Some of the images in the
disk storage unit have been successfully duplicated. The disk storage unit becomes full. What happens
next?
A.Duplicated images are purged until the disk storage unit can hold the next backup.
B.Duplicated images are purged until 98% below the disk capacity has been reached.
C.Duplicated images are purged until the high water mark has been reached.
D.Duplicated images are purged until the lower water mark has been reached.
Answer:D

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NO.17 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation? (Choose
three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer:A C D

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NO.18 A restore must be performed. You have gone into the Backup Archive and Restore GUI and are trying
to view the valid images for clientA but the following error occurs: WARNING: Server does not contain any
valid images. Which options may be incorrectly configured? (Choose three.)
A.Source client for restores
B.Destination client for restores
C.Server to use for backups and restores
D.Media server for restore
E.Policy types for restore
Answer:A C E

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NO.19 When a restore is performed to client A, which process will go active when the restore starts?
A.tar
B.bpbkar
C.bpbkar32
D.tar32
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer:A C E

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Code d'Examen: ST0-47X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 In your data center, application data is deemed to be the most important data. You use Platinum Data
Classification in the policy to back up the Application data. You have UNIX clients that use Silver and
Bronze Data Classifications in their policies. There are Windows clients that do not use Data
Classifications. All data is backed up to DSSUs, have a one-year retention and have relocated to tape.
Which backup images are deleted first from the DSSUs when the disk becomes full?
A. application backups
B. UNIX client backups
C. Windows client backups
D. No backups are deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What happens when a backup is started and there are no tapes in the pool specified in the policy?
A. The backup automatically fails and a status code 96 is shown.
B. The Media Manager tries to move a tape from the Scratch Pool to the specified pool.
C. The oldest Full backup is deleted, and that tape is reused for the backup.
D. The GUI pops up a message asking the administrator which action to take.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about exclude lists? (Select three.)
A. They can be specific for schedules.
B. They can be specific for policies.
C. They can be used during user initiated backups.
D. They can use wildcards for file names.
E. They can be run after the include list.
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

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NO.11 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with 50
GB of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

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NO.12 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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NO.13 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.15 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

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NO.16 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.18 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB) interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.19 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5 there are currently three storage units (STU-A, STU-B and STU-C). STU-A is
set as On Demand Only, and STU-B and STU-C do not have On Demand Only selected. Three policies
have been created as follows: PolicyA is set up to use storage unit STU-A, PolicyB is set up as Any
Available storage unit and PolicyC is set up to use STU-C.
If STU-B fills up, and STU-A and STU-C still have available space, what happens to future backups for
PolicyB?
A. Backups will use STU-A.
B. Backups will use STU-C.
C. Backups will remain queued waiting for available space on STU-B.
D. Backups will fail with an error message indicating media is unavailable.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-050
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 To verify that a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager has Symantec Network Access Control
functionality, what change to the Policies tab would an administrator see?
A. Host Integrity
B. Host Checking
C. Host Compliance
D. Host Inspection
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?
A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the script
B. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settings
C. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpoint
D. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines Properties
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the first step to troubleshoot a custom requirement in a Host Integrity policy?
A. run the Host Integrity check several times
B. carefully examine the logic structure of the conditions
C. examine the Security Compliance Summary reports
D. check the properties of the endpoint from the Clients page
Answer: B

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NO.4 When is Host Integrity Checking enabled on a Symantec Network Access Control (SNAC) client?
A. when the Host Integrity policy is configured and distributed to the client
B. when the SNAC client is updated by LiveUpdate for content
C. during the heartbeat authentication process with the Enforcer
D. automatically when an upgrade to SNAC is made
Answer: A

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NO.5 What must an administrator specify in a custom requirement that is different from a predefined
requirement?
A. the client's policy manager domain
B. the client's group assignment
C. the policy's ending Host Integrity state
D. the policy's log entries
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which custom requirement utility allows an administrator the ability to choose an informative icon to
display to the end user?
A. run a script
B. log message
C. show message dialog
D. run a program
Answer: C

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NO.7 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When choosing to run a script as an action in a custom requirement, which file format(s) can be used
to write the script?
A. only BAT or INI formats
B. only Pearl scripting
C. a custom file format with the .symc extension
D. any executable format recognized by Windows
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-050   ST0-050 examen

NO.9 What is AVScript.js used for?
A. client status
B. to write to the system log
C. to start the status monitor
D. Host Integrity
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-050   certification ST0-050

NO.10 Which three types of data can be used with LAN Enforcers for the authentication sequence? (Choose
three.)
A. machine GUID
B. Policy ID
C. Host Integrity state
D. location awareness settings
E. user group
Answer: ACD

Symantec   ST0-050 examen   ST0-050
*

NO.11 Which two event details are included in a standard Host Integrity log file? (Choose two.)
A. client Host Integrity status
B. name and state of each requirement
C. error messages
D. checked parameter
E. http 200 ok
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Where does an administrator view compliance log files?
A. from the specific client in the Network Access Control log
B. from the Policy Manager console in the Monitors page
C. from the Policy Manager console in the Admin page
D. from the Enforcer debug logs
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-050   ST0-050   ST0-050 examen

NO.13 What is the default context in which programs are run when using the patch requirement in a Host
Integrity policy?
A. in logged-in user context
B. in system context
C. in administrator user context
D. in domain-user context
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-050   certification ST0-050   certification ST0-050   ST0-050

NO.14 How should the logical condition of an IF/THEN/ENDIF statement be reversed?
A. add an AND statement
B. enable the Reverse Logic Processing Engine for the requirement
C. use the Transform function of the extended scripting commands
D. toggle the NOT function on the IF portion of the statement
Answer: D

Symantec   certification ST0-050   certification ST0-050

NO.15 Which settings are specific to Antivirus and Antispyware predefined requirements?
A. application startup command
B. signature file check
C. execute an installation package
D. allow user to cancel remediation
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-050   ST0-050   ST0-050

NO.16 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether an antivirus product is
up-to-date on a client machine?
A. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the client
B. check the date of the associated signature data files(s) on the LiveUpdate server
C. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the IT database
D. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) in the policy manager
Answer: A

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NO.17 Where are Symantec Network Access Control client packages placed on the Symantec Endpoint
Protection Manager?
A. Client/Policies
B. Admin/Install Packages
C. Policies/Policy Components
D. Clients/Install Packages
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-050 examen   certification ST0-050   ST0-050

NO.18 How many network interface(s) need to be configured for a Gateway Enforcer appliance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-050   certification ST0-050

NO.19 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether a product is running on a
client machine?
A. check that the service is running in the services snap-in
B. check that the service is running
C. check that the service has been stopped
D. check that the service has been registered
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-050   ST0-050 examen

NO.20 Which two default user accounts are created on an Enforcer? (Choose two.)
A. administrator
B. admin
C. root
D. user
E. guest
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-050   ST0-050   ST0-050

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Code d'Examen: ST0-29B
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.2 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B   ST0-29B examen

NO.3 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.4 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

Symantec examen   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.5 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.6 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.7 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

Symantec examen   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.8 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B

NO.10 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

Symantec   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.11 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.12 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B

NO.13 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B examen

NO.14 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.15 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B

NO.16 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-29B examen   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B

NO.17 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B

NO.18 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

Symantec   certification ST0-29B   ST0-29B   ST0-29B

NO.19 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-29B   certification ST0-29B

NO.20 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-086
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS))
Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 Which tool is used in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 to control permissions?
A. Permission Configuration tool
B. Rote-Dased Administration tool
C. Security Configuration tool
D. User Access Control tool
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.2 Which type of backup task for Linux is supported oy Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. offsite copy
B. recovery point set
C. file and folder backup
D. independent recovery point
Answer: D

Symantec   certification ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.3 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-086   certification ST0-086   ST0-086 examen

NO.4 Which two options will activate the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) evaluation
period? (Select two.)
A. beginning the BESR installation program
B. running a dnve-based or file and folder backup
C. booting a system from the System Recovery Disk (SRD)
D. defining a drive-based or file and folder backup
E. completing the BESR Installation program
Answer: B, D

Symantec   ST0-086   certification ST0-086   ST0-086   certification ST0-086

NO.5 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-086   certification ST0-086   ST0-086   certification ST0-086

NO.6 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-086   ST0-086 examen   ST0-086

NO.7 Which two options must be installed to migrate managed client computers from Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery Manager 85 (BESR) to Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. BESR plug-in
C. Symantec Installation Manager
D. Symantec ThreatCon
E. BESR Management Console
Answer: A, B

Symantec examen   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.8 Which backup method is available with Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. independent recovery point backup
B. recovery point set backup
C. incremental backup
D. file and folder backup
Answer: A

Symantec examen   ST0-086   ST0-086   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.9 Which two options are available to configure FTP offsite copy? (Select two)
A. Failover to alternate site
B. secure FTP
C. Limit connection attempts to
D. Connection mode
E. Limit number of copies
Answer: C, D

certification Symantec   ST0-086   ST0-086 examen   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.10 An administrator needs to create a new destination for the backup of a server with Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Management Solution.
Which server requires access to the location?
A. the client server
B. the BESR Management Solution database server
C. the BESR Management Solution server
D. the UveUpdate server
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-086   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.11 What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 for Linux17
A. 256 MB
B. 384 MB
C. 512MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-086 examen   ST0-086   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.12 An administrator needs to configure the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Event log
logging level for only the most critical problems.
Which two steps are required to accomplish this? (Select two).
A. set the type of messages to High Priority Messages
B. set the type of messages to All Messages
C. set the type of messages to Medium and High Priority Messages
D. check the Errors check Dox
E. check the Errors and warnings check Dox
F. check me Errors, warnings, and informational check Dox
Answer: A, D

certification Symantec   certification ST0-086   ST0-086   certification ST0-086   ST0-086 examen

NO.13 What is me minimum memory that LightsOut Restore requires to run?
A. 512MB
B. 768 MB
C. 1 GB
D. 2 GB
Answer: C

certification Symantec   ST0-086   ST0-086   ST0-086 examen

NO.14 Using the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Management Solution, an administrator can
define which two types or backup policies? (Select two)
A. Backup Point Set
B. File and Folder Policy
C. Recovery Point Set
D. Independent Backup Point
E. Independent Recovery Point
Answer: C, E

Symantec   ST0-086   ST0-086

NO.15 A computer is currently managed by Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery Manager 8.5. The
administrator needs to manage that computer using Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution.
Which component will be removed during migration?
A. Altihs plug-in
B. Altihs Agent
C. Management Console
D. Management Control
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-086   certification ST0-086   certification ST0-086   ST0-086 examen

NO.16 In an organization, users are commonly working on their computers while Backups are occurring.
To improve application performance for users, how is Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
tuned tor user performance to take priority over backups?
A. adjust Default Performance
B. suspend backups while the system is active
C. change Connection Mode
D. enable the Computer Responsiveness setting
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-086 examen   certification ST0-086   certification ST0-086

NO.17 Which configuration feature of Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 allows the recovery of
a remote machine by removing the requirement for external boot media?
A. Restore Anyware
B. LightsOut Restore
C. Cold Image Restore
D. Symantec pcAnywhere
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-086   ST0-086   certification ST0-086   ST0-086 examen

NO.18 Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Is installed on a windows Server 2003 it Is then
used to deploy agents to five remote computers running windows Server 2003. and nve computers
running windows 7 Enterprise.
Regardless of the edition. how many total BESR licenses are required to license all machines in the
environment?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
E. 11
Answer: E

Symantec   ST0-086   ST0-086   ST0-086 examen

NO.19 An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must De
configured to disable status reporting for this drive?
A. Error Only status reporting
B. Configure status reporting
C. No status reporting
D. Full status reporting
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-086 examen   ST0-086   ST0-086 examen

NO.20 When installing the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Agent on Windows Server 2008,
which two services are automatically installed on the host computer? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Alert service
B. Symantec SymSnap VSS Provider service
C. Symantec pcAnywhere Host service
D. SymSnapService service
E. Symantec FiashSnap service
Answer: B, D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-090
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

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NO.1 A Standards Evaluation has completed and is ready to be viewed. What are two view options.? (Select
two.)
A. Risk-based view
B. Compliance-based view
C. Asset-based view
D. Failure-based view
E. Standard-based view
Answer: C, E

Symantec examen   ST0-090   ST0-090 examen   ST0-090

NO.2 An administrator troubleshooting the Symantec Control Compliance system notices that both the
Application server and the Directory server failed to start. The administrator verifies that Windows started
normally on the two servers. What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. verify that the Active Directory server is running
B. ping the load balancer from the Application server
C. verify that the Information server is running
D. verify internet access from the Directory server
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-090   ST0-090   ST0-090   ST0-090

NO.3 A Control Compliance Suite 10.0 user schedules a Policy Acceptance report. After the Report job
finishes, the user opens the results and receives the message: 'No data available to generate this report.'
The user is sure that certain people have already accepted policies this morning. What should the user do
in order to get the data in the report?
A. run the Report Generation job again
B. run the Policy and Mandates Metrics Computation job
C. run the Report Data Purge job
D. run the Report Data Synchronization job
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-090 examen   ST0-090   ST0-090

NO.4 When an administrator of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 views the results of an evaluation against a
standard, both the risk score and the compliance score are high. How can these evaluation results be
explained?
A. Multiple sections contain failures.
B. The risk score tracks critical failures.
C. Many exceptions have been approved.
D. The compliance score tracks informational items.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Response Assessment Module Web Service application pool account must be a member of which
group?
A. Administrators
B. IIS_WPG
C. RAM_Administrators
D. Distributed COM Users
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-090   ST0-090 examen

NO.6 An administrator wants to ensure that issues flagged as out of compliance are addressed as efficiently
as possible. The administrator wants to trigger the remediation process. Where is the remediation option
set?
A. within the Evaluation Job Wizard
B. within the Standard specification
C. on the Asset Properties page
D. on the Reporting page
Answer: A

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NO.7 What must be done before the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 can use a newly installed Data
Processing Service (DPS)?
A. synchronize settings on all registered DPS hosts
B. register the DPS with the Application server
C. set all values of the common fields with reconciliation rules
D. import primary assets
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two available formats for exporting reports from the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Reporting
and Analytics Console? (Select two.)
A. Comma Separated Values (CSV)
B. Portable Document Format (PDF)
C. Crystal Reports (RPT)
D. Microsoft PowerPoint (PPT)
E. Microsoft Access (MDB)
Answer: B, C

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NO.9 Asset Import jobs from a particular site are running more slowly than Asset Import jobs from other sites.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The Application server service is untrusted for delegation.
B. One of the DPS Collectors from the site has failed.
C. The Reporting Database Synchronization job has failed.
D. Service Principal Names (SPNs) are configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification ST0-090   certification ST0-090   ST0-090

NO.10 A single Data Processing Service (DPS) Reporter is assigned to perform database synchronization
between which two databases? (Select two.)
A. Reporting database
B. Evidence database
C. Credentials database
D. Production database
E. Master database
Answer: A, D

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NO.11 Which function of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 is responsible for generating tiered dashboards?
A. DPS Evaluator
B. DPS Reporter
C. Application server
D. Directory server
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-090   ST0-090   ST0-090

NO.12 In order to use Response Assessment Module results as policy evidence in Control Compliance Suite
(CCS), which two statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. The policy and question must be mapped to the same control statement.
B. The same CCS asset must be part of the policy and the questionnaire.
C. The questionnaire and policy evaluation must be performed simultaneously.
D. The Content Studio must be mapped to the RAM server.
E. The user must be assigned the data owner role to validate the result.
Answer: A, B

Symantec examen   ST0-090   ST0-090   ST0-090   ST0-090

NO.13 A Data Collection job fails for a Windows machine in Control Compliance Suite 10.0 (CCS). All
components appear to have been correctly installed and configured in the console. What is an initial step
to take outside of the CCS Console (Reporting and Analytics) to troubleshoot the issue?
A. restart Symantec RMS Process Manager
B. run a bv-Control for Windows query
C. recreate the Credentials database
D. verify the Enterprise Configuration Service
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two actions can be taken on a predefined report in the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Console?
(Select two.)
A. Move
B. Delete
C. Copy
D. Export Report Template
E. Paste
Answer: C, D

Symantec   certification ST0-090   ST0-090   ST0-090   ST0-090 examen

NO.15 In terms of securing systems and configurations, Control Compliance Suite 10.0 performs which two
functions? (Select two.)
A. performs event correlation on security logs
B. identifies high risk systems and configurations
C. scans content of servers for confidential information
D. provides guidance for and measures effectiveness against industry standards
E. proactively blocks threats from penetrating critical systems
Answer: B, D

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NO.16 Which two statements accurately describe the purpose of the Control Compliance Suite Production
database? (Select two.)
A. It stores the data that is collected from the assets.
B. It stores data specific to individual dashboards.
C. It stores the results of evaluation jobs.
D. It stores data specific to individual reports.
E. It stores evidence gathered from the extended evidence sources.
Answer: A, C

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NO.17 Which Control Compliance Suite component automates the analysis of procedural controls?
A. Standards Module
B. Entitlements Module
C. Policy Module
D. Response Assessment Module
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which database do the dashboards pull data from?
A. Production database
B. Reporting database
C. Evidence database
D. Master database
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is required for the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Application server and Directory server
components to support Kerberos authentication in an Active Directory environment?
A. username and password
B. configured PKI certificates
C. configured Service Principal Names (SPNs)
D. successful sync configuration
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-090   ST0-090 examen

NO.20 Within an evaluation result, the status 'Unknown' is primarily defined with which check setting?
A. missing data items
B. heck ex ression
C. precondition
D. post-processing expression
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-511
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec(TM) Data Loss Prevention 11)
Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to communicate
back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

Symantec   certification 250-511   certification 250-511   certification 250-511   250-511   certification 250-511

NO.2 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

Symantec examen   250-511 examen   250-511 examen   250-511 examen

NO.4 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A,E

Symantec examen   250-511   250-511   certification 250-511

NO.5 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification 250-511   250-511   250-511

NO.8 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-511   250-511   250-511   certification 250-511

NO.12 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-511   certification 250-511

NO.13 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C,E

Symantec   certification 250-511   250-511   250-511

NO.14 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B,D

Symantec   250-511   250-511

NO.15 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

Symantec examen   250-511 examen   certification 250-511   250-511

NO.16 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

Symantec   250-511   250-511   250-511

NO.17 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

Symantec   250-511   250-511 examen   250-511

NO.18 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-511   certification 250-511   certification 250-511

NO.19 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB. Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

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NO.20 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 250-403
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.1)
Questions et réponses: 174 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

certification Symantec   250-403   certification 250-403

NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator is attempting to set up a replication rule. When the administrator right-clicks the
replication folder, the menu in the exhibit appears. What does the administrator need to do to create a
replication rule?
A. enable Replication
B. access one of the Replication subfolders
C. access the resource and select Replicate Now
D. create a subfolder and access it there
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification 250-403   250-403 examen

NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has set up the Resource Association History within Purging maintenance. No other
Purging maintenance settings are enabled. If a computer resource were retired three months ago, what
will the status of this resource be in this scenario?
A. The resource will be removed after two months.
B. The resource will no longer be retired.
C. The resource will still be retired.
D. The resource will have an unknown status.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

Symantec   250-403   certification 250-403   250-403   certification 250-403

NO.5 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizationalview.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

Symantec   250-403   250-403   250-403 examen

NO.6 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP Computers, and
2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the Windows XP Computers
filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-403   250-403   250-403   250-403 examen

NO.8 Refer to the Exhibit.
After a password change on the Application Identity account, the administrator of a Symantec
Management Platform 7.1 (SMP) server sees this error. Which action resolves the problem?
A. run sc.exe config "AeXSvc" password= (password)
B. run a repair of SMP through the Symantec Installation Manager
C. change the password by changing the database setting options in the SMP console
D. run AeXConfig.exe /svcid user:(user name) password:(password)
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

Symantec   250-403   250-403

NO.10 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a new
hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-403   250-403

NO.13 Refer to the Exhibit.
The All Computers filter contains the following computers: WinXP1, WinXP2, and Win2003. The Windows
2003 filter contains the Win2003 computer. What is contained within the resultant target?
A. nothing
B. Win2003 only
C. WinXP1 and WinXP2 only
D. WinXP1, WinXP2, and Win2003
Answer: C

Symantec   250-403   250-403   250-403

NO.14 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned a policy and set a schedule for the policy to run at 9:00 A.M. every day. When
the policy does not run as expected on a client computer, the administrator reviews the policy's XML and
finds that there is an end date set for a date in the past. What should the administrator do to correct this
policy?
A. export the policy, edit and correct the XML, and import the policy
B. create an automation policy that updates the end date in all solution policies
C. edit the end date field for the affected row in the vPolicy database view
D. clear the end date option in the policy's advanced options
Answer: D

Symantec   certification 250-403   250-403

NO.15 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

Symantec   250-403 examen   250-403

NO.16 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without administrative
intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-403   certification 250-403   250-403   250-403

NO.17 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task.?
A. clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. right-click and select the task's properties
C. clone the source folder of the sample
D. clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

Symantec   certification 250-403   certification 250-403   certification 250-403

NO.18 A Symantec Management Platform 7.1 administrator attempts to discover all network resources using
the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network administrator, it is determined that
ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes. Which other protocol can the administrator
use to discover network devices using Network Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 Refer to the Exhibit.
How can an administrator modify the filter so that it shows all Windows XP workstations ?
A. by adding 'Windows XP Computers' to the Resources included in this filter
B. by adding 'Windows XP Computers' to the Filters included in this filter
C. by adding 'Non Windows XP Computers' to the Filters excluded in this filter
D. by adding 'Non Windows XP Computers' to the Resources excluded in this filter
Answer: B

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